Usage of wine in sacrament

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Damasta
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Post by Damasta »

vorpal blade wrote:I’m sorry that we don’t see it the same way, Damasta. Definition #2 does not insist that spirits and sugar have to be added for it to qualify as “wine.” As I read it, and I thought you would to, it states that things like spirits and sugar are usually added. No attempt at giving requirements was intended. I think the use of “&c” indicates a loose “things of that nature,” message for all of the ingredients. If spirits and sugar are requirements, then so must “&c” be a requirement by that logic, and we would need to know exactly what “things of that sort” was in order to know whether or not we really had wine.
It does not state that spirits and sugar are "usually" added. You inserted that word all on your own. I accept that the "&c." includes things which are optional, but I do not believe that the "optional" extends to the specified sugar and spirits. However, the definitions that you dug up in Webster's 1828 Dictionary for "must" and "stum" are very cogent: it appears that "wine" was sometimes used in Joseph Smith's day to indicate an unfermented grape juice, particularly when phrased as "new wine". Point conceded, though I still think that that is the less-commonly-meant definition.
vorpal blade wrote:I would hope this settles the question.
I'm afraid it doesn't since we have the quote from Brigham Young, a prophet of God, using "new wine" to indicate an alcoholic, fermented grape juice. And we still have the Saints (including the prophets and apostles) using alcoholic wine in the Sacrament up until 1906.

I agree that Judges 9:13 and Zech. 9:17 are inconclusive as to the alcoholic nature of tiyrōsh. I'm not convinced by Bacchiocchi's interpretation of Hosea 4:11. It is true that the Lord was addressing idolatry in Isreal. However, that idolatry was overseen by prostitutes (both male and female) that worked in the pagan temples. So it was not merely a symbol. "Wine and women" really were contributing to the destruction of God's chosen people. Note that both things (sex and alcohol) are things which, if indulged in inappropriately (e.g. to excess), can rob you of your will, or "take away your heart". Thus the symbol wasn't simply the association with idolatry, it was that "idolatry takes away your heart, just like these things do". Add to this that in the Septuagint, which was translated from the Old Testament into Koine Greek in the 2nd and 3rd Centuries BC by Jewish scholars, tiyrōsh was translated as οίνος oinos ("wine") in all cases but one: Hosea 4:11 was translated as μέθυσμα methusma ("an intoxicating drink"). All other occurrences of methusma in the Septuagint are for shekar ("strong drink"). They still spoke Aramaic at this time, so there's no reason to believe that the translators didn't know what tiyrōsh meant. Thus it appears that tiyrōsh also sometimes referred to the grape juice in a fermented state.
vorpal blade wrote:My main criticism of the argument used by Garrett and Robinson is not based on the use of the word “pure.” It is based on the misrepresentation Garrett and Robinson give to the other side. No one is saying that all wine is merely nonalcoholic grape juice. Verse 5 in D&C 89 refers to wine or strong drink, and obviously refers to alcoholic wine. The usage in verse 6 is argued to mean nonalcoholic grape juice in reference to what can be used in the sacrament. Their assertion that “If the reference to wine here, or "pure wine of the grape," were understood to mean unfermented wine, then verses 5–6 would constitute a prohibition against the use of grape juice, except for the sacrament—and this is clearly not the case” is silly, or a deliberate misstating the position they oppose.
I'm not sure what you mean, here. How would you state the position they oppose? And how does it not hinge on "wine = alcoholic wine" and "pure wine = unfermented grape juice"?
vorpal blade wrote:A word for unfermented wine was used in the Bible (though many scholars may disagree), which is probably why Joseph Smith used the word "wine," rather than the English word "must" which is not in the KJV Bible.
This still doesn't explain why the Old Testament prophets only used מִשְׁרָה (mishrah, "juice") once, the New Testament apostles never used χυμός (khumos, "juice"), and why Joseph Smith never used "juice".
vorpal blade wrote:Taking a step back for a moment, let me explain what I am trying to do in this forum, other than have a little fun. Time after time I’ve seen statements to the effect that pick and choose among the words of the prophets. The Church takes a stand against homosexual marriage and this is dismissed as the fears of some homophobic old men who are behind the times. The dangers of communism and socialism and the importance of free enterprise are explained away as red fear mongering based on cold war worries of Stalinist communism. The fact that the Church would not permit blacks to hold the priesthood is represented as the product of some racists old guys like Brigham Young who were influenced by the bigoted culture of their time to institute a man-made policy discriminating against black people. And so on, denying the prophets.

And now it appears that the words of our Church leaders and scriptures in regard to the sacrament is to “confound the worldly and secular ideal of teetotalism with the commandments and instructions of the Lord.” Just like all the other arguments “which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel,” this one serves to undermine the Church.
I wasn't actually asserting that the prophets were influenced by worldly trends and thus introduced teetotalism into the church. I'm saying that teetotalism is not a principle of the Lord, it is a principle of the world. What the prophets and Scriptures have taught may be very similar to teetotalism in many respects, but it is not teetotalism. Thus, I'm accusing you of confounding the two, not the leaders of the Church.

The Lord did not prohibit the Saints from drinking alcohol (except for certain groups, like the Nazarites) until this dispensation. He made some himself at the wedding at Cana! And he will drink it with us again when he returns! Abstention from recreational use of alcohol is a latter-day commandment, not an eternal principle. Anciently the Saints were prohibited from eating pork or shellfish (but they were allowed to drink alcohol). That was a Mosaic commandment, not an eternal principle (we are now allowed to consume both pork and shellfish). The Word of Wisdom is a commandment of the Lord and it was both timely given and appropriate. It is not, however, teetotalism. Nor is it derived from teetotalism. Now, I'm not saying that the policy to use water is wrong. I think it's totally appropriate (and for the same reasons given in D&C 89:1–4). But I don't believe alcoholic wine is specifically prohibited from being used in the sacrament. I am 100% confident that if any of the prophets or apostles, past or present, were offered a sacrament cup filled with alcoholic wine, duly and properly blessed by worthy priesthood authority, that none of them would hesitate to partake. Nor would I. And I do not believe that doing so would be a violation of the Word of Wisdom.
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vorpal blade
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Post by vorpal blade »

I would like to address some unanswered issues that have come up in this discussion, but first I would like to summarize the discussion so far.

I feel that the scriptures, as written, are sufficiently clear to show that drinking fermented or alcoholic wine is contrary to the will of the Lord in our day and age, and this applies to its use in the sacrament as well. In D&C 27: 2 it says it doesn’t matter what you eat and drink as long as you remember the “body which was laid down for you,” and “blood which was shed for the remission of your sins.” The Lord goes on to give the commandment that they shall not purchase wine neither strong drink of your enemies, and they shall partake of none “except it is made new among you.”

According to Webster’s 1828 dictionary wine could be alcoholic or non-alcoholic, but the Lord is careful to make a distinction between not purchasing “wine neither strong drink,” lumping the two together, and wine “made new among you.” According to Webster’s 1828 dictionary “new wine” was understood at the time to mean, “wine pressed from the grape but not fermented.” (see definition for “must”)

In regard to D&C 89 we read:
D&C 89 wrote: 5 That inasmuch as any man adrinketh bwine or strong drink among you, behold it is not good, neither meet in the sight of your Father, only in assembling yourselves together to offer up your sacraments before him.
6 And, behold, this should be wine, yea, apure wine of the grape of the vine, of your own make. 7 And, again, astrong drinks are not for the belly, but for the washing of your bodies.
Again, it is apparent to me that drinking “wine or strong drink” is against the will of the Lord. Here wine and strong drink are lumped together, indicating I think what kind of wine the Lord was talking about in the prohibition. The exception to drinking wine is made in the sacrament, as long as it is “pure wine of the grape of the vine, of your own make.” This means to me, clearly that wine is okay for the sacrament, as long as it non-alcoholic.

People can have legitimate disagreements over the interpretation of scriptures, and if this were all there was then we could just state our opinions and move on. But there is more. The Church has been teaching for generations now that the “new wine” and the “pure wine” “of your own make” refer only to non-alcoholic and unfermented wine. This is seen in the words of the apostles such as John A. Widstoe, and in the official publications such as the LDS Institute manual. It is also clearly the procedure we have been observing for perhaps a hundred years, or perhaps much longer.

Damasta proposed that wine always meant “fermented wine,” but this turns out not to be the case. He also proposed that “it appears that all Scriptural accounts of ‘wine’, ‘new wine’, and ‘sweet wine’ refer to a fermented, alcoholic beverage.” Damasta briefly acknowledged that “Other, more recent, scholars claim that asiys, tiyrosh, or gleukos refer to ‘must’ or ‘grape juice’ and weren’t fermented,” but immediately dismisses these scholar because they do not agree with the “etymology and/or scriptural context,” as he gave them, of the Hebrew and Greek words used in the Bible.


My point of view is that it doesn’t matter whether or not wine meant something fermented in the Bible. It doesn’t matter what they drank, or what they used in the sacrament. The important point is what the Church teaches today as our standard of living. But, I showed that the etymologies of the experts were far from certain, and that different authorities such as Strong claimed etymologies which contradict the authorities Damasta used.

It doesn’t matter to me if all the Hebrew words for wine sometimes refer to fermented wine, but I gave it as my opinion that “tirosh” appears to always be unfermented. The Biblical usage, or scriptural context, to prove or disprove that opinion comes down to a single scripture (out of 38 scriptures) and how you interpret the meaning of “take away the heart” used in that scripture (Hosea 4:11). There are differences of opinion, and neither of us can say definitely what the true meaning is. Damasta gave as further evidence the Septuagint translation for Hosea 4:11.

I don’t put much stock in the scriptural commentaries, preferring to “drink upstream before the cows have stepped in it.” Nevertheless Damasta has given us references to at least six doctrinal commentaries on the Doctrine and Covenants, and five out of six support the position of the Church, which I am supporting. Damasta dismisses these commentaries with these words:
Damasta wrote: Your linked commentary was written by Matthew Faulconer. Who is he? Not a scholar nor a General Authority. He works at Wells Fargo. Since he has no more authority than you or I, I won't bother rebutting him. Hyrum M. Smith and Janne M. Sjodahl, in Doctrine and Covenants Commentary, essentially make the same arguments as you have and regard the large number of words translated as wine as evidence that "pure wine" must be unfermented (non sequitur); and they quote Canon Farrar. Daniel H. Ludlow, in Companion to Your Study of the Doctrine and Covenants, vol. 1, cites Smith and Sjodahl verbatim. Hoyt W. Brewster, in Doctrine and Covenants Encyclopedia cites Smith and Sjodahl verbatim. Roy W. Doxey, in Doctrine and Covenants Speaks, vol. 1 cites Smith and Sjodahl. So it seems that it was Smith and Sjodahl who first cited Canon Farrar, and I incorrectly remembered it to be Elder Widtsoe. Again, I apologize. Other than these, all other interpretations of the matter (including one by Hugh Nibley, but only in passing) that I found, claimed that one or more Hebrew words indicated unfermented grape juice (which I've already addressed).
Only one of the six commentaries, by Garrett and Robinson, supports the point of view of Damasta. My point of view is that nothing in Damasta’s arguments points to the commentaries being wrong, contrary to Damasta’s assertion (“Besides, I've already addressed why I believe that they, collectively, are wrong”), merely possibility based in part on a source which might be biased.

Twice I’ve tried to show why I consider the argument of Garrett and Robinson to be illogical. Let me try again here. They state:
Garrett and Robinson wrote: This does not indicate that the wine used in the sacrament was merely fresh grape juice. The wine commonly used for the sacrament in the nineteenth century Church was fermented and contained alcohol [...]. If the reference to wine here, or "pure wine of the grape," were understood to mean unfermented wine, then verses 5–6 would constitute a prohibition against the use of grape juice, except for the sacrament—and this is clearly not the case. Since the beginning of the twentieth century, the uniform practice of the Church has been to use water for the sacrament. (commentary on D&C 89:6)
Their argument seems to be that if the term wine in verse 6, as in “pure wine of the grape” refers to fresh grape juice, then the term wine in verse 5 must also refer to grape juice. If this be true then the Lord would be saying “That inasmuch as any man drinketh [grape juice] or strong drink among you, behold it is not good, neither meet in the sight of your Father, only in assembling yourselves together to offer up your sacraments before him.” Truly, to take this straw man point of view would be clearly wrong.

I find their argument illogical, or they are using a straw man, because no one is saying that the Church position is that wine always means grape juice. Clearly in the context of verse 5 “wine or strong drink” refers to the alcoholic version of the wine. The meaning of wine in verse 6 as unfermented grape juice does not imply that the meaning of the word wine in verse 5 also means grape juice, as Garrett and Robinson imply. To put it another way, the position they seem to oppose is that wine always means, in every instance, unfermented non-alcoholic grape juice. That would be just as wrong as the assertion that wine always means fermented grape juice.

I have not yet tried to answer why the Lord didn’t use the word “juice” if what he meant was non-alcoholic unfermented liquid from grapes. Damasta gives this as “perhaps the most pressing concern.” The Lord seldom tells us his reasons for choosing the words he uses, but I’ll attempt to give some possible reasons in a later post, even though I don’t think it should matter to us.

Damasta also quotes a number of sources which give the impression that the early Church leaders used alcoholic wine, sometimes in the sacrament. Again, the important principle to me is that today we are told not to use fermented wine. It doesn’t matter to me what early leaders did or taught or whether they understood it then as we do today. There are many on the Internet who are very opinionated and convinced that their opinion is fact. I’ll try to show that there is reason to doubt that they know as much as they think they do.

I’ll also come back to the question of wine as used in the Bible. And I’d like to say a few more words about Canon Farrar.
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Post by vorpal blade »

Damasta wrote:Perhaps the most pressing concern is why didn't the Lord ever use the word "juice" in the revelations? The word has been in use since the 13th Century, AD (source). Are we to suppose that he tried to find sneaky, ambiguous ways to say things when there were simple, straight-forward ways to say them? Or is it safe to assume that when he said "wine" he meant the generally understood meaning of the word ("fermented grape juice")?
Why did the Lord use wine in the Doctrine and Covenants when he could have used a word like “juice” and not confuse anyone, if he truly meant a non-alcoholic grape juice? In short, I don't know, but I have a couple of thoughts on the subject.

The word wine certainly carries with it a lot of symbolic imagery. The color of wine is often red and helps to remind us of the blood of Christ which was shed for our sins. Wine is formed by squeezing out the juice of the grape, and that makes us think of Jesus in the Garden of Gethsemane when the stress of his suffering caused him to bleed at every pore. Wine was thought anciently as a means to heal wounds. New wine has the power “to raise fermentation in dead or vapid wines,” to “revive”[d] and “renew their spirits,” (as when you stum dead wines with new wine – Webster's 1828 dictionary). Wine has been used for millenia to symbolize the blessings that come from God. For these and other symbolisms wine seems like the appropriate word to use, and it is used extensively in the Bible.

The second reason I have is that other words, like juice, besides lacking the power of the symbolism in the word “wine,” are not as unambiguous as they first appear. We live in a day and age of legal restrictions which standardize labels for food in this country. But in Joseph Smith's day it was not unusual to use the word “wine” to mean something either fermented or unfermented. It was a surprise to me to find out that “Liquor is a word of general signification, extending to water, milk, blood, say, juice, &c.; but its most common application is to spirituous fluids, whether distilled or fermented, to decoctions, solutions, tinctures.” (Webster's 1828 dictionary) It will probably be a surprise to you to learn that “juice” can be applied to fermented and unfermented liquids.

Unfortunately Webster thought juice was so widely understood that it needed no definition. His definition for “juice” is simply “juice.” However, in looking at how he uses juice in his dictionary we can see the general meaning to include alcoholic liquors. I have not attempted to give full definitions of the words, but solely to illustrate how the word was used.
Webster wrote: CIDER, n. The juice of apples expressed, a liquor used for drink. The word was formerly used to signify the juice of other fruits, and other kinds of strong liquor; but it is now appropriated to the juice of apples, before and after fermentation.
DRAW, 14. To extract; as, to draw spirit from grain or juice.
EXTRACT, 2. To draw out, as the juices or essence of a substance, by distillation, solution or other means; as, to extract spirit from the juice of the cane; to extract salts from ashes.
GLAD, To make glad; to affect with pleasure; to cheer; to gladden; to exhilarate. Each drinks the juice that glads the heart of man.
RUM, n. Spirit distilled from cane juice; or the scummings of the juice from the boiling house, or from the treacle or molasses which drains from sugar, or from dunder, the lees of former distillations.
BLOOD, n. 15. The juice of any thing, especially if red; as, "the blood of grapes." Gen.49.
There were several more words that talked about distilling spirits from the juice. You don't create alcohol by distillation, merely extract it from the alcoholic juice, or draw it out. So the juice must already be alcoholic. It appears that Webster called some liquids “juices” which also had alcohol in them. In the word “glad” a non-alcoholic juice can make you glad, but it is ambiguous because some people will interpret this to be an alcoholic beverage.

It is interesting that Webster refers to the “blood of grapes” as a "juice" in Genesis 49. Gesenius's Lexicon says “blood of the grape is used of wine, which in Palestine is red.” So Webster is saying that in this case “the blood of grapes,” a wine, is also called a juice. If we believe Gesenius in this case.

The word “juice” is only used once in the scriptures, and that is in Song of Soloman 8:2 “I would lead thee, and bring thee into my mother's house, who would instruct me: I would cause thee to drink of spiced wine of the juice of my pomegranate.” Now, I would interpret this to mean that it is referring to a fermented drink made from the unfermented juice of the pomegranate. However, the Hebrew word for “juice” here is “acyic,” which is usually translated as “sweet wine” and “new wine,” and some think that this was a fermented drink. So if the Lord had used the word “grape juice” instead of “wine” there are many who would argue that the Lord was referring to a fermented wine. A little convoluted, I agree, but plausible I think.

Why didn't the Lord say “unfermented wine” or “non-alcoholic” wine? I really don't know. Many times on my mission I was offered a beverage that my hosts insisted was non-alcoholic, but turned out to be 10-15 proof. “Well,” they would say, “it's practically non-alcoholic.” It is hard to tell how alcoholic something is if the alcohol content is low. I'm suggesting that if you want to believe the Lord is referring to an alcoholic beverage you are going to find a way to interpret whatever words are used to suit your purpose.
Last edited by vorpal blade on Thu May 27, 2010 10:06 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Post by vorpal blade »

Damasta wrote:I haven't seen any particular prevarication about the etymology of words translated as "wine" except from laypeople who try to argue that it could mean anything other than fermented grape juice. To add to the problem, there are words which do designate "unfermented grape juice". In Hebrew:

מִשְׁרָה — mishrah: "the juice squeezed out of a fruit". It comes from a Hebrew root which means "to squeeze" or "to press". Only used once, in Num. 6:3, when proscribing Nazarites from partaking of wine (yayin), strong drink (shekar, which indicates alcohol made from any other source, such as dates, honey, barley, &c.), vinegar from wine, vinegar from shekar, juice mishrah of the grape (`enab ), fresh grapes, or raisins. The KJV translators render it "liquor" (but see "liquor" in Webster's 1828 dictionary). Most modern translations render it "grape juice" (source).
I don’t know where you got your information regarding the meaning and etymology. See http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lex ... 4952&t=KJV
Strong’s Lexicon wrote: מִשְׁרָה
Transliteration…… mishrah
Root word (Etymology)….. From שָׁרָה (H8281) in the sense of loosening
Outline of Biblical Usage……..1) juice
Authorized Version (KJV) Translation Count – Total: 1
AV – liquor 1
Gesenius’s Lexicon wrote: מִשְׁרָה f. (from the root שָׁרָה to loosen, to macerate) maceration, steeping, Nu. 6:3, משרת ענבים "drink made of steeped grapes."
I wasn’t familiar with the words “macerate” and “steep,” so I looked them up in Webster’s 1828 dictionary.
Webster’s 1828 dictionary wrote:MAC'ERATE, v.t. [L. macero, from macer, thin, lean; maceo, to be thin or lean; Eng. meager, meek.]
1. To make lean; to wear away.
2. To mortify; to harass with corporeal hardships; to cause to pine or waste away.
Out of excessive zeal they macerate their bodies and impair their health.
3. To steep almost to solution; to soften and separate the parts of a substance by steeping it in a fluid, or by the digestive process. So we say, food is macerated in the stomach.


STEEP, a. Making a large angle with the plane of the horizon; ascending or descending with a great inclination; precipitous; as a steep hill or mountain; a steep roof; a steep ascent; a steep declivity.
STEEP, n. A precipitous place, hill, mountain, rock or ascent; any elevated object which slopes with a large angle to the plane of the horizon; a precipice.
We had on each side rocks and mountains broken into a thousand irregular steps and precipices.
STEEP, v.t. [probably formed on the root of dip.] To soak in a liquid; to macerate; to imbue; to keep any thing in a liquid till it has thoroughly imbibed it, or till the liquor has extracted the essential qualities of the substance. Thus cloth is steeped in lye or other liquid in bleaching or dyeing. But plants and drugs are steeped in water, wine and the like, for the purpose of tincturing the liquid with their qualities.
STEEP, n. A liquid for steeping grain or seeds; also, a runnet bag. [Local.]
It appears that there is a fundamental difference between wine and mishrah of grapes. Wine is formed by pressing or squeezing out the juice, and mishrah of grapes is formed by soaking grapes in some kind of liquid. Sure, mishrah of grapes is “grape juice,” but it may also be alcoholic, especially if the grapes have been steeped in an alcoholic liquid. Perhaps it is for this reason that the King James translators chose the word “liquor” when translating “mishrah.” Liquor may or may not be alcoholic, but I believe the same can be said of “mishrah.”

Many years ago I was in Israel traveling in a largely LDS tour group. My wife and I remember well a certain meal served in a fancy restaurant. The dessert was a small bowl of peeled orange slices in some kind of liquid. Several in the group were remarking how delicious these oranges were, while my sister-in-law was laughing up her sleeve. She knew immediately that these oranges had been steeped in some kind of alcoholic wine. I was slow eating my goat meat, so by the time I got to my orange slices I had heard that the oranges were alcoholic. I didn't eat them.

I think Mishrah would not be a good choice for a word that you wish to use in the place of unfermented wine. First, it may not be free of alcohol. And second, the etymology suggests a process of forming the “grape juice” that does not have the same symbology as grapes crushed underfoot in a wine press to squeeze out the juice.
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Post by Damasta »

vorpal blade wrote:
Damasta wrote:I haven't seen any particular prevarication about the etymology of words translated as "wine" except from laypeople who try to argue that it could mean anything other than fermented grape juice. To add to the problem, there are words which do designate "unfermented grape juice". In Hebrew:

מִשְׁרָהmishrah: "the juice squeezed out of a fruit". It comes from a Hebrew root which means "to squeeze" or "to press". Only used once, in Num. 6:3, when proscribing Nazarites from partaking of wine (yayin), strong drink (shekar, which indicates alcohol made from any other source, such as dates, honey, barley, &c.), vinegar from wine, vinegar from shekar, juice (mishrah) of the grape (`enab ), fresh grapes, or raisins. The KJV translators render it "liquor" (but see "liquor" in Webster's 1828 dictionary). Most modern translations render it "grape juice" (source).
I don’t know where you got your information regarding the meaning and etymology. See http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lex ... 4952&t=KJV
Strong’s Lexicon wrote: מִשְׁרָה
Transliteration…… mishrah
Root word (Etymology)….. From שָׁרָה (H8281) in the sense of loosening
Outline of Biblical Usage……..1) juice
Authorized Version (KJV) Translation Count – Total: 1
AV – liquor 1
Gesenius’s Lexicon wrote: מִשְׁרָה f. (from the root שָׁרָה to loosen, to macerate) maceration, steeping, Nu. 6:3, משרת ענבים "drink made of steeped grapes."
I used Strong's Lexicon at BlueLetterBible (the website you linked to). The etymology is from שָׁרָה (H8281). I'm afraid that I thought "macerate" meant "squeeze", probably because of its similarity to "mash". If you look at the entry for sharah in the Brown, Driver, and Briggs Hebrew English Lexicon of the Old Testament (here, top left corner) you see that it is derived from the Assyrian term šarû, which means "to dissolve". A little lower down in the column you see that they include mishrah (מִשְׁרָה) and translate it as "the juice of grapes". However, I agree with you that even grapes steeped in water wouldn't remain nonalcoholic for very long.

At this point I think a discussion of why grape juice ferments even without adding yeast. The grapes naturally produce enzymes which break down the sugar in the juice to ethanol. For most other alcoholic concoctions (e.g. beer), the yeast performs this process. To prevent this, you have to pasteurize (i.e. boil) the grape juice. This also eliminates bacteria which would convert the sugars and ethanol to acetic acid (vinegar). These enzymes are found in the pomace (the solid part of must).
Wikipedia wrote:Must (from the Latin vinum mustum, “young wine”) is freshly pressed fruit juice (usually grape juice) that contains the skins, seeds, and stems of the fruit.
Wiktionary wrote:Fruit juice that will ferment or has fermented, usually grapes.
dictionary.com (Random House Dictionary) wrote:New wine; the unfermented juice as pressed from the grape or other fruit.
The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition wrote:The unfermented or fermenting juice expressed from fruit, especially grapes.
Merriam-Webster's Medical Dictionary wrote:The expressed juice of fruit and especially grapes before and during fermentation
Merriam-Webster wrote:The expressed juice of fruit and especially grapes before and during fermentation; also: the pulp and skins of the crushed grapes
HarperCollins Dictionary wrote:The pressed juice of grapes or other fruit ready for fermentation
Oxford English Dictionary wrote:The juice of freshly pressed grapes before or during fermentation into wine; a thick, pulpy mixture of crushed grapes prepared for or undergoing fermentation.
Noah Webster's American Dictionary of the English Language (1828) wrote:New wine; wine pressed from the grape but not fermented.
As you can see, the dictionaries define it variably. But understanding that "must" isn't just the newly-pressed juice, but also includes the pomace helps us to understand why adding must to new juice or old wine "stums" it: the pomace contains the enzymes necessary to (re)start fermentation. Thus even if he had known of the word, Joseph wouldn't have put "must" into the D&C since it indicates the pressed grapes before the pulp (pomace) has been drained out. Juice/wine that is still full of skins, seeds, and stems (see image below) is hardly a fitting symbol of the atonement (but neither is it something potable, really):

Image

Just for fun, here is the BDB entry for תִּירוֹשׁ (tiyrōsh), which is generally translated as "must" or "new wine". By digging a little deeper I was able to find a few more Hebrew terms.

נֵצַחnetsach: "the juice of grapes (as sprayed by being trodden in the press)". This one was hard to find because the KJV translators rendered it as "blood" in Isa. 63:3 and "strength" in Isa. 63:6.
דֶּמַעdema`: literally "a tear", but used metaphorically to mean "juice". Rendered "liquors" by the KJV translators in Ex. 22:29.
לְשַׁדlĕshad: "juice", "juicy bit", "moist bit". Rendered "moisture" by the KJV translators in Ps. 32:4 and "fresh" in Num. 11:8.

However, none of these three are really convincing as a term for nonfermented, pomace-free grape juice. The lack of a definitive word in ancient Hebrew (modern Hebrew uses מִיץ miyts, which comes from a root meaning "to squeeze" or "to press"—source) makes me thing that the ancient Hebrews didn't distinguish between fermented and unfermented grape juice. Because the fermentation started so quickly (within 6 hours), and because they had no knowledge of what caused fermentation, perhaps grape juice and fermented wine were one and the same to them.
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Post by bismark »

this has gotten boring.

facts: 1) we now only use water per church policy 2) latter-day saints have at some points used alcoholic wine as the sacrament.

so what exactly is the debate?

obviously the scripture has not always been interpreted to mean grape juice, but if that interpretation has since changed (not without precedence), it's really a moot point since we use water exclusively.

the end.
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Post by Damasta »

vorpal blade wrote:I don’t put much stock in the scriptural commentaries, preferring to “drink upstream before the cows have stepped in it.” Nevertheless Damasta has given us references to at least six doctrinal commentaries on the Doctrine and Covenants, and five out of six support the position of the Church, which I am supporting. Damasta dismisses these commentaries with these words:
Damasta wrote: Your linked commentary was written by Matthew Faulconer. Who is he? Not a scholar nor a General Authority. He works at Wells Fargo. Since he has no more authority than you or I, I won't bother rebutting him. Hyrum M. Smith and Janne M. Sjodahl, in Doctrine and Covenants Commentary, essentially make the same arguments as you have and regard the large number of words translated as wine as evidence that "pure wine" must be unfermented (non sequitur); and they quote Canon Farrar. Daniel H. Ludlow, in Companion to Your Study of the Doctrine and Covenants, vol. 1, cites Smith and Sjodahl verbatim. Hoyt W. Brewster, in Doctrine and Covenants Encyclopedia cites Smith and Sjodahl verbatim. Roy W. Doxey, in Doctrine and Covenants Speaks, vol. 1 cites Smith and Sjodahl. So it seems that it was Smith and Sjodahl who first cited Canon Farrar, and I incorrectly remembered it to be Elder Widtsoe. Again, I apologize. Other than these, all other interpretations of the matter (including one by Hugh Nibley, but only in passing) that I found, claimed that one or more Hebrew words indicated unfermented grape juice (which I've already addressed).
Only one of the six commentaries, by Garrett and Robinson, supports the point of view of Damasta. My point of view is that nothing in Damasta’s arguments points to the commentaries being wrong, contrary to Damasta’s assertion (“Besides, I've already addressed why I believe that they, collectively, are wrong”), merely possibility based in part on a source which might be biased.
Given that three of the five commentaries (I assume that the fifth is Elder Widtsoe) which support your position just quote Smith and Sjodahl verbatim, they hardly qualify as independent authorities on the matter. Even so, let us consider who they are.

Hyrum M. Smith was the eldest son of President Joseph F. Smith. He was called as an apostle in 1901, two years before Frederic William Farrar died. He had no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek.

Janne M. Sjodahl was originally a Swedish Baptist minister. He was excommunicated from that church on charges of adultery (I have no idea whether he was guilty or not). His scholarship focused on the Book of Mormon. He had no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek.

Daniel H. Ludlow was a BYU professor, was the main editor for The Encyclopedia of Mormonism, was director of the Correlation Committee for 15 years, and was instrumental in helping prepare the 1980 edition of the Standard Works. His scholarship focused on the Book of Mormon and the Doctrine and Covenants. He had no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek. His only commentary on the matter at hand is to quote Smith and Sjodahl verbatim.

Hoyt W. Brewster was a BYU professor and a seminary teacher. His scholarship focused on the Doctrine and Covenants and on Church history. He had no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek. His only commentary on the matter at hand is to quote Smith and Sjodahl verbatim.

Roy W. Doxey was a BYU professor and served on the General Young Men Board. His scholarship focused on the Doctrine and Covenants. He had no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek. His only commentary on the matter at hand is to quote Smith and Sjodahl verbatim.

H. Dean Garrett was a BYU professor. His scholarship focused on the Doctrine and Covenants and on the history of the Church. He had no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek.

Stephen E. Robinson is a BYU professor and chairman of the Department of Ancient Scripture. His scholarship focuses on the New Testament. He has had extensive formal training in ancient Hebrew and Greek.

To add to this list, Revelations of the Restoration, by Craig J. Ostler and Joseph Fielding McConkie:
89:6 Pure wine. Convincing arguments can be presented to sustain the idea that the phrase "pure wine" refers simply to grape juice or to a wine with a low level of intoxicant in it. The language of this revelation leaves the impression that a wine with a low level of intoxicant is intended.

89:7 Strong drinks are not for the belly. "Strong drink" is a biblical phrase used to mean intoxicating drinks (Leviticus 10:9; Numbers 6:3; Deuteronomy 14:26; 29:6). It is not simply drunkenness that is prohibited here, but indulgence in any drink that has the capacity to intoxicate—regardless of how moderate that use may be—with the exception of the sacrament.
Craig J. Ostler is a BYU professor. His scholarship focuses on the Doctrine and Covenants. He has no formal training in ancient Hebrew or Greek.

Joseph F. McConkie is a BYU professor. Son of apostle Bruce R. McConkie and grandson of President Joseph Fielding Smith. He has extensive training in ancient Hebrew and Greek.

You'll note that the two men who can actually claim to be experts in the ancient languages of the Bible (Stephen E. Robinson and Joseph F. McConkie, both of whom are excellent apologists for the Church) favor the idea that alcoholic wine was sanctioned for use in the sacrament.

So what exactly do Smith and Sjodahl say?
D&C 27
Except it is made new The Lord, in His infinite wisdom, directed the Saints not to buy wine or any other strong drink, of enemies, and, consequently, not to use wine in the Sacrament, unless they themselves had made it; and then it should be "new wine." Dr. F. W. Farrar says that "new wine" (Luke 5:37) means unfermented wine, or "must"—a beverage which can be kept for years and which improves with age; it is "a rich and refreshing, but non-intoxicating beverage".

...

There has also been contention concerning the contents of the Cup. In the early churches the wine was mixed with water, as was the custom of the Jews, for their wine, as an ancient writer, quoted by Lightfoot, says, "was very strong, and not fit to drinking, unless water was mixed with it." In most churches the wine used for the Sacrament is diluted with water, and at one time clergymen were instructed to mix the wine with "a little pure and clean water." In the early centuries of our era some converts demanded that water be used instead of wine. From one of their leaders, Tatian, they are called Tatiani. They are also known as Hydroparastatē, or Aquarii. They were centuries ahead of their time and therefore condemned as heretics."
D&C 89
Pure wine The use of "pure wine" in the Sacrament is permitted. But what is "pure wine" if not the pure juice of the grape, before it has been adulterated by the process of fermentation? No fewer than thirteen Hebrew and Greek terms are rendered in our Bible by the word "wine." There is the pure grape juice, and a kind of grape syrup, the thickness of which made it necessary to mingle water with it previously to drinking (Prov. 9:2, 5). There was a wine made strong and inebriating by the addition of drugs, such as myrrh, mandragora, and opiates (Prov. 23:30; Isa. 5:22). Of the pure wine which was diluted with water, or milk, Wisdom invites her friends to drink freely (Prov. 9:2, 5). There was also "wine on the lees," which is supposed to have been "preserves" or "jellies" (Isa. 25:6). The "pure wine" is not an intoxicating, but a harmless liquid.
It turns out that I erred again. Smith and Sjodahl didn't cite Farrar's addendum to Smith's Bible Dictionary, they cited his commentary on the Book of Luke (which can be seen here, p. 376). However, I find his argument to be more than a stretch. The points that I will make here are that Smith and Sjodahl acknowledge a source (Rev. Lightfoot quotes a rabbi in the Babylonian Talmud) which attributes a potent degree of alcohol in the wines used in Old and New Testament times; the Farrar commentary that they cite is more than a bit of a stretch; and the argument they make in the D&C 89 commentary is a non sequitur (the existence of many Biblical terms for wine does not, per se, mean that "new wine" either in the Bible or in the Doctrine and Covenants means "nonalcoholic wine"). So I find their commentary lacking in rigor. And the fact that later authors cite them does not, in any way, improve their rigor (nor the rigor of the authors citing them).

Moving on. Here is the entirety of what Elder Widtsoe wrote on the subject:
Wine for the Sacrament. The Word of Wisdom provides that wine used for the Sacrament, should be "pure wine of the grape of the vine, of your own make." This statement is understood to mean new or unfermented grape juice, since the Word of Wisdom declares unequivocally against the internal use of alcohol in any form.

This interpretation is reinforced by the fact that under divine command, water was early in the history of the Church substituted for wine, for sacramental purposes. The revelation reads:

"For, behold, I say unto you, that it mattereth not what ye shall eat or what ye shall drink when ye partake of the sacrament, if it so be that ye do it with an eye single to my glory—remembering unto the Father my body which was laid down for you, and my blood which was shed for the remission of your sins." (Doctrine and Covenants 27:2)

Water is always used by the Church in partaking of the sacrament.

Reference is often made to the supposed use of wine by the Savior at the last supper. It is well known, however, that the words "the fruit of the vine" have been translated as "wine". It is equally well known that in the Old Testament, three different words are translated "wine", two of which, used most commonly, refer clearly to unfermented grape juice. In the New Testament two Greek words, not necessarily representing fermented grape juice, are translated "wine". Intoxicating wine was not a common beverage among ancient Israel. (Gall, An Interpreting Concordance of the New Testament, 1863; Ritchie, Wm., Scripture Wines, 1870; Emerson, R. E., A Lay Thesis on Bible Wines, 1902.)
I'll say more below. But here I want to point out that Elder Widtsoe did cite sources which supported his point of view. But even at his time there were sources (such as this one, p. 1108), which argued against such an idea.

And one more:

Church History and Modern Revelation, vol. 2 by Joseph Fielding Smith:
The Word of Wisdom does not mention tea and coffee, but does speak of hot drinks. Patriarch Hyrum Smith delivered an address to the Saints in Nauvoo, in 1842, in which he declared that hot drinks include tea and coffee, and this interpretation was accepted by the Church. However, all hot drinks, whether they are stimulants or not are harmful to the body. This discourse, which was published in the "Times and Seasons," Vol., 3:799-801, and in the Era, Vol. 4, should be read by all, for the timely instruction it contains. Thousands of discourses on this question have been preached and many articles written so that we are not ignorant of the will of the Lord. We should remember that the Lord instructed that water could be used for wine in the Sacrament (Sec. 27) so as to avoid the use of wine containing alcohol. We should also remember that this revelation says that wine if used for the sacrament should be made "new" among us and be pure juice of the grape.
This last was published in 1947, when Joseph Fielding Smith was an apostle (since 1910) but not the prophet. Thus, I feel it's safe to say that his statements perhaps carry as much authority as Elder Widtsoe's do, but certainly not as much authority as a revelation presented by the First Presidency and ratified by the Church would. But as long as we're considering the stated opinions of apostles, we have the apostles Brigham Young, Jr. and John Henry Smith who felt that beer was not prohibited by the Word of Wisdom; apostles Anthon H. Lund and Matthias F. Cowley felt that neither beer nor currant wine were against the Word of Wisdom; and apostle Charles W. Penrose felt that wine was still acceptable (at the time wine, cider, and beer were considered "mild drinks", while distilled spirits or hard liquor were considered "strong drinks"). President Lorenzo Snow (both as an apostle and as the President of the Church) also felt that prohibitions should not be made against beer, but did continuously preach that consumption of meat was against the Word of Wisdom. Joseph Fielding Smith (again, as an apostle) was also adamant about this point (Joseph Fielding Smith, Doctrines of Salvation, comp. Bruce R. McConkie, 3 vols., (Salt Lake City: Bookcraft, 1954–56), 148), but now we generally disregard it. Apostle George Teasdale and President Wilford Woodruff felt that eating pork was a more serious violation of the Word of Wisdom than drinking tea or coffee. This we also disregard in modern times. In fact, in the very publication cited in the LDS Institute Manual, Elder John A. Widtsoe listed "refined flour" and "chocolate" as being against the Word of Wisdom. However, at one point, President Heber J. Grant said that many of Elder Widtsoe's arguments "might be criticized because the actual teachings in the Word of Wisdom would hardly justify the conclusions drawn." Whether that includes his statements about the use of alcoholic wine for the Sacrament is left unstated. Elder Bruce R. McConkie later wrote a contradiction of several of these ideas in Mormon Doctrine: "There is no prohibition in Section 89, for instance, as to the eating of white bread, using white flour, white sugar, cocoa, chocolate, eggs, milk, meat, or anything else, except items classified under the headings, tea, coffee, tobacco, and liquor. As a matter of fact those who command that men should not eat meat, are not ordained of God, such counsel being listed by Paul as an evidence of apostasy." You'll also notice that in the Elder Joseph Fielding Smith quote, above, he includes all hot drinks, not just tea and coffee. In his estimation hot cocoa, hot tang, hot milk, hot water, hot herbal tea, hot postum, &c. should all also be prohibited. This, also, is not currently enforced. (references for all unsourced statements in this paragraph can be found in Alexander, Thomas G. "The Word of Wisdom: From Principle to Requirement." Dialogue: A Journal of Mormon Thought 14:3 (1981) pp. 78–88.)

So the only thing that separates Elder Widtsoe's declaration from the rest is that it is quoted in a correlated manuscript published by the Church. This certainly lends credence to the statement. However, it should be noted that the effect of correlation isn't necessarily the enumeration of correct doctrine, only the achievement of standardization. While I'm sure the men and women who serve on the Correlation Committee are called by inspiration, they are not ordained as prophets, seers, and revelators; in short they are not authorized by God nor by his Church to declare doctrine nor interpret the meaning of Scriptural utterances. So even though I'm sure they do a wonderful job, they are still fallible and can be prone to let some of their own preconceived notions to become standardized. Brother Stephen E. Robinson told us in a New Testament class at BYU that for a while the Correlation Committee tried to curb all use of the term "God" since it was unclear which God it referred to: the Father, the Son, or the Holy Ghost? Their Pharisaical insistence on this point eventually even caused some of the Twelve to chafe, resulting in the Correlation Committee being put in their place.
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Post by Damasta »

vorpal_blade wrote:Twice I’ve tried to show why I consider the argument of Garrett and Robinson to be illogical. Let me try again here. They state:
Garrett and Robinson wrote: This does not indicate that the wine used in the sacrament was merely fresh grape juice. The wine commonly used for the sacrament in the nineteenth century Church was fermented and contained alcohol [...]. If the reference to wine here, or "pure wine of the grape," were understood to mean unfermented wine, then verses 5–6 would constitute a prohibition against the use of grape juice, except for the sacrament—and this is clearly not the case. Since the beginning of the twentieth century, the uniform practice of the Church has been to use water for the sacrament. (commentary on D&C 89:6)
Their argument seems to be that if the term wine in verse 6, as in “pure wine of the grape” refers to fresh grape juice, then the term wine in verse 5 must also refer to grape juice. If this be true then the Lord would be saying “That inasmuch as any man drinketh [grape juice] or strong drink among you, behold it is not good, neither meet in the sight of your Father, only in assembling yourselves together to offer up your sacraments before him.” Truly, to take this straw man point of view would be clearly wrong.

I find their argument illogical, or they are using a straw man, because no one is saying that the Church position is that wine always means grape juice. Clearly in the context of verse 5 “wine or strong drink” refers to the alcoholic version of the wine. The meaning of wine in verse 6 as unfermented grape juice does not imply that the meaning of the word wine in verse 5 also means grape juice, as Garrett and Robinson imply. To put it another way, the position they seem to oppose is that wine always means, in every instance, unfermented non-alcoholic grape juice. That would be just as wrong as the assertion that wine always means fermented grape juice.
First of all, this isn't necessarily a straw-man argument. There are a lot of people who do believe that the Church position is that wine always refers to grape juice. It is to them that they principally address their remarks. Your position is that "wine" refers to "an alcoholic beverage" when you want it to (e.g. D&C 27:3 and 89:5) and to "grape juice" when you want it to (e.g. D&C 20:40, 75, 78-79; 27:4; 88:141; and 89:6). These latter passages are all used in the context of the sacrament, so you believe that there is no confusion here since D&C 27:4 and D&C 89:6 distinguish alcoholic wine ("wine") from grape juice ("pure wine" or "new wine"). But by requiring an adjective to distinguish "non-alcoholic wine" from all other wines, you're actually accepting the definition "any beverage made from the juice of grapes, whether alcoholic or not" for the word "wine". Then, to indicate which subset of "any beverage made from the juice of grapes, whether alcoholic or not" or "wine" you mean, you say "new wine" or "pure wine". Robinson and Garrett point out that by accepting the definition "any beverage made from the juice of grapes, whether alcoholic or not" for the word "wine", the logical conclusion is that we are therefore forbidden to use "any beverage made from the juice of grapes, whether alcoholic or not" (including grape juice) unless it is for the sacrament. Which is not the case.

This has been a great discussion, Vorpal Blade, and I thank you for challenging me and for helping me to find some of the errors in my arguments (and a few misattributed statements). But I've spent way too much time on this topic and I have other things to do. So, even though I know you'll probably be posting another rebuttal (and I still welcome your thoughts), I'll be doing my best not to respond to them. But even if you don't feel like posting another rebuttal, I'd still like to hear what you have to say about Dean Farrar. From what I can tell he was a great man, but I didn't see any evidence that he could be taken as an authority on the meaning of ancient Hebrew or Greek.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by Vorpal »

Damasta wrote:This has been a great discussion, Vorpal Blade, and I thank you for challenging me and for helping me to find some of the errors in my arguments (and a few misattributed statements). But I've spent way too much time on this topic and I have other things to do. So, even though I know you'll probably be posting another rebuttal (and I still welcome your thoughts), I'll be doing my best not to respond to them. But even if you don't feel like posting another rebuttal, I'd still like to hear what you have to say about Dean Farrar. From what I can tell he was a great man, but I didn't see any evidence that he could be taken as an authority on the meaning of ancient Hebrew or Greek.
This has been a great discussion, Damasta. I’ve learned a lot. I too spent a great deal of time on this topic. I wanted to be sure of my facts, so I first took the time to verify my sources, and was just about to write my results when you decided to quit. Well, anyway, bismark was bored.

You did ask to hear what I had to say about Canon Farrar, so I’ll briefly summarize what I was going to say, without bothering with all the references.

First, you characterized Canon Farrar as having made “an addendum” to Smith’s Bible Dictionary, “written in by Frederic William Farrar,” making an “alteration” to Dr. Smith’s manuscript, and “vandalized Smith’s Bible Dictionary.” It appears to me that it was Dr. Smith who took some comments Canon Farrar had made in some temperance tracts published a few years before his revised Bible Dictionary, altered them (and introduced the misspelling of “syrup”), and added it as a parenthetical comment to his own Bible Dictionary.

Probably Canon Farrar was not an authority on ancient Hebrew or Greek. Some of the comments he makes seem to come from some ancient Roman writings. I don’t think a lack of scholastic credentials is a serious handicap in this case. Many of the scholars in ancient Hebrew and Greek seem to be seriously lacking in logical reasoning ability, which I think is a more severe handicap.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

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I am vorpal blade and I approve this message.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by Damasta »

Vorpal wrote:First, you characterized Canon Farrar as having made “an addendum” to Smith’s Bible Dictionary, “written in by Frederic William Farrar,” making an “alteration” to Dr. Smith’s manuscript, and “vandalized Smith’s Bible Dictionary.” It appears to me that it was Dr. Smith who took some comments Canon Farrar had made in some temperance tracts published a few years before his revised Bible Dictionary, altered them (and introduced the misspelling of “syrup”), and added it as a parenthetical comment to his own Bible Dictionary.
Good to know. I regret maligning him. And, on a slightly unrelated note, it appears that the move has garbled all the Greek and Hebrew characters we've been posting.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

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I've fixed your first post, will do the second one shortly. I just am pretty sure there's a better way than copy-pasting. Oh well. I'm not very innovative.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by vorpal blade »

I noticed how poorly the Greek and Hebrew came across. But even the simple " ' " didn't always make it, as in "don’t" when it should have been "don't."

Thanks for helping, C4.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by Laser Jock »

I assume the problems are boardwide (though we may not have used odd characters anywhere else), and probably result from the conversion from phpBB2 (which didn't use Unicode) to phpBB3 (which, thankfully, does). If people notice problems elsewhere, I'd be glad to look into converting everything. (Or if C gets tired of copying. :) )
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Post by foe »

I'm seriously impressed with the amount of research and writing that went into this discussion. I just made it through the whole thing and I am proud of myself just for reading it all... kudos to the authors.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by Portia »

Does anyone know which denominations use alcohol in their Eucharist, and which don't? Catholics definitely do, but it's a "closed" thing for only baptized Catholics. The SE Baptist church near my parents' used juice (I advocate this for Mormons! water is bland, haha) for their last supper stations at Christmas.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by vorpal blade »

According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eucharist Those who use alcoholic wine are:
Catholic Church
Eastern Catholic
Anglican
Lutheran
Mennonites/Anabaptists
Reformed/Presbyterian (might be true alcoholic wine or grape juice)
Jehovah’s Witnesses


Those not using wine are:
Baptist (since the mid-19th century use grape juice)
United Methodist (grape juice)
Latter-Day Saints
Seventh-day Adventists (unfermented (non-alcoholic) grape juice)

“Many Protestant churches allow clergy and communicants to take mustum instead of wine. In addition to, or in replacement of wine, some churches offer grape juice which has been pasteurized to stop the fermentation process the juice naturally undergoes; de-alcoholized wine from which most of the alcohol has been removed (between 0.5% and 2% remains); or water.”
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by FauxRaiden »

I don't know what the complaint is. Wine is absolutely disgusting. Most alcoholic drinks are just terrible and bitter tasting, but wine seems to take it a bit further than most.

I for one would refuse the sacrament just because it tasted like recycled urine twice vomited with a touch of baking soda.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by Craig Jessop »

FauxRaiden wrote: I for one would refuse the sacrament just because it tasted like recycled urine twice vomited with a touch of baking soda.
Really? I mean really? Was that really necessary? I know you're joking, but seriously. This is the sacrament we're talking about.
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Re: Usage of wine in sacrament

Post by Marduk »

Besides, wine doesn't taste THAT bad. I mean, supposedly beer is worse.
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